It was the hardships of the onerous reparations and hyperinflation in Weimar Germany horse that went before the Hitler cart. It was the indifference to suffering of the French horse by Mary Antionette that was followed by the guillotine cart. Romanov Tsar's indifference to Russian suffering, again came before the revolution. You should look into the collapse of the Songhai Empire through endless war. Identify an ideology in any of that bloodbath. They were very wealthy and comfortable with hot and cold running gold.
I don't agree that material hardships can adequately explain any of the above mentioned, but I don't need to. All I need to show is that, after the revolutions (and democratic election of Hitler), ideological commitment/possession was necessary to maintain their brutal, dehumanizing policies at such a large scale.
What was the ideology of the participants in Milgrams and Shachters experiments? Those being explicitly designed to explain the actions of the little cogs and foot soldiers under the Nazis, as if a bullet in the back were not enough.
You're an American so your foreign and domestic policies must all be your ideology, right?
The experiments which showed how cruel people can be to others when socially pressured by a perceived source of authority? That is almost the definition of ideological possession (especially when the source of authority is an all-encompassing complex of ideas). How do they support the "material hardship" explanation?
Again, what are these all encompassing ideas at play?
Marxism is an all-encompassing set of ideas - it purports to explain all of human history through the dialectic of class struggle (historical materialism) and also predicts a utopian form of socioeconomic relations. Ideologies do not need to be all-encompassing in this same way, but they undeniably became this way.
Also, what is your explanation for the fact that the Milgram experiment, which
you brought up, undermines your material hardship explanation of 20th century atrocities?
I take it as a yes on ideological support of US foreign and domestic policy. We are voting for the man who increased the MIC budget 25% on day 1 after all.
I would evaluate those policies on a case by case basis and try not to color my perceptions of them by
a priori ideas about the nature of reality or what's "good" and "evil" (even though this is much easier said than done, and to some extent impossible).
And, no, I don't think increasing the military budget by 25% was or is a good policy. I also think Obama started more wars and left more US troops on foreign soil than Trump, who has started no wars and reduced troops. Trump also managed to convince Israel and several MENA countries to reach a peace deal just recently. I don't have any confidence that Biden can do the same or that the deals already struck will even be finalized or remain in place if he is elected.
In any case you now need to explain how social pressure, authority and an all encompassing system was absent for subjects/serfs prior to the materialist nihilism of the enlightenment.
Why would I need explain why those things were absent? Remember, I'm not the one who thinks material hardships are a sufficient explanation for any large scale conflicts, at any time in human history.